Like I don’t get it, he owns 9% of the shares, doesn’t he still need like 42% of other shareholders to vote in in as CEO? So isn’t he still subject to the will of the other shareholders? 🤔
(Disclaimer: I have no idea how this works, which is why I’m asking)
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So the question is was this copy pasted from some needlessly verbose article, or is this a LLM “enhanced” answer?
You STOLE IT from Wikipedia!?!? /s
I googled it instead of chatgpting it. Crazy I know