Like I don’t get it, he owns 9% of the shares, doesn’t he still need like 42% of other shareholders to vote in in as CEO? So isn’t he still subject to the will of the other shareholders? 🤔
(Disclaimer: I have no idea how this works, which is why I’m asking)
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Companies can have shares in multiple ways. For example, voting and non-voting.
Alternately, a company can have shares that get more votes then others, so the owner of a company could, say, have 10% of shares, but those shares have 10x voting power. Thats how the WWE used to be before it was bought out.